Posted by lizabent on August 12, 2005, at 16:20:23 [reposted on August 13, 2005, at 19:22:48 | original URL]
In reply to Re: Amphetamine derivatives for Parkinson's? » linkadge, posted by ed_uk on August 12, 2005, at 15:34:35
Hi y'all,
I'm new, but I hope you don't mind if I throw in my $.02 US...There are several different theories of the etiology of Parkinson's Disease. What this means in science, normally, is that there are indeed probably many different etiologies! Irreversible symptoms of PD can be brought on instantly by dopaminergic neurotoxins, such as the infamous MPTP cases in San Jose, California, USA. There are also the early-onset cases of PD that onset during the early 40's, which researchers now tend to think are mainly genetic in origin. Then you have the prototypical cases wherein a person starts to show symptoms in their 50's or 60's.
What this means is that no one treatment for PD is going to be great for everyone (as with cancer, depression, you name it) because many cases will have different causes. In some cases, it is due to the disintegration of dopamine-producing cells, in others it is due to defects in receptor proliferation, and in others, it has to do with defects in the streams that transmit dopamine-encoded information.
It isn't like PD is caused by a bacteria that, if killed, will disappear. So it is good that they are trying amphetamines with these people, to try to find ways to treat the different sorts. After all, if your dopaminergic neurons are already dead, it probably can't hurt to try something to stimulate the postsynaptic neurons or they will die off too, since they need input to survive (use it or lose it prevails in neuroscience).
BTW, I was really interested in the studies that showed that smokers had decreased prevalence of PD. Food (and cigarettes...) for thought.
Liz
poster:lizabent
thread:541232
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/health/20050411/msgs/541237.html