Posted by Lou Pilder on March 1, 2007, at 7:28:33 [reposted on March 25, 2007, at 5:23:27 | original URL]
In reply to Re: Lou's reply to AM-thetrth? - 'but vs. and', posted by madeline on March 1, 2007, at 7:16:49
> Lou,
>
> In some translations of the bible, that passage is actually joined by the phrase "and" instead of "but". Why? Because the two are interchangeable logically. See this link below.
>
> http://books.google.com/books?id=TMe52tjh4hMC&pg=PA31&lpg=PA31&dq="difference between but"&source=web&ots=3chE_GJYhr&sig=fH7DKlWwxFqxARh4lBcL-MTzq5g
>
> Also note, that the two statements joined by either "but" or "and" are still true.madeline,
You wrote,[...some bibles.."and" instead of "but"..].
I am unsure of what you are meaning here in relation to the statement in question. Could you expound more on what you mean? If you could, then I could have the opportunity to respond accordingly.
Lou
poster:Lou Pilder
thread:735406
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20070304/msgs/744061.html