Posted by Christ_empowered on July 22, 2022, at 8:21:29
In reply to Re: Binding of antidepressants, posted by linkadge on July 22, 2022, at 7:49:23
I dunno...
it isn't that I don't find the hard science aspect of psych drug treatment interesting (I do, although I also find it confusing...), so much as...
personally, I think a lot of "treatment success" stories aren't so much dependent (at least not completely) on matching individuals in distress to drugs that have the best possible binding profile, etc. so much as...
it seems that it depends on matching an individual's most distressing problems/"symptoms" (where "symptoms" can be understood as problems that respond to drug treatment, at least for a while...) to drugs that improve those symptoms without adding undue burdens, in and of themselves.
example: For whatever reason(s), my own "symptoms" seem to always and forever result in a neuroleptic prescription. it is what it is. Aripiprazole is, so far, the winner for me in that category.
OK. so, for me...a 10-20mgs/abilify dosage soothes agitation, takes the edge off low moods, and keeps my occasional upswings from getting ridiculous. below 10mgs seems to be pointless; above 20 seems to be chemically-induced hibernation, plus somehow ocd-ish stuff gets exacerbated.other people...do better with, say, risperidone. just as effective in the aggregate, so what gives? well...for people who can tolerate the risperidone without eps and td, etc., it seems that the risperidone is more calming, soothing...from what I've read and what I've observed in others, that seems to be especially true of people with intense trauma in their background. kind of like...
I read a "psychiatric survivor's" account of hospitalization in the early 60s. trauma, adolescent angst against the backdrop of social change and family disintegration. OK. so, when the younger set misbehaved enough, they were administered a low(ish) dosage of Thorazine. and...
-because- of the author's background, ongoing problems, age, and what sounds like a rather gloomy treatment setting, those low doses of Thorazine were often something of a mixed blessing. less agitation, less anxiety, the "de-activation" effect of neuroleptics at a low enough dosage to avoid the infamous "Thorazine shuffle," etc. problem? from my perspective, it sort of set a pattern of ongoing distress, maladaptive behavior, and then the tranquilizer. which is part of a larger issue that I have with inpatient care: even now -- and even in private settings -- I do think they're more interested in molding "good patients" than in helping people get on with life.
or back to antidepressants. I was prescribed the once standard 20mgs/Prozac for my mood and ocd-ish stuff. it was...not so great, honestly. On her way out, my prescriber said to just take more Lamictal and maybe avoid antidepressants in the future. so...what gives, there?
I didn't have drug induced psychosis, significant agitation, mania, or any of that jazz. Honestly? I think its because the "emotional novocaine" effect that many described with SSRI drugs (in particular) is something that I associate with intense depression. so...my thoughts weren't looping as much, the intensity of the low end was reduced, but...the overall effect -- I think especially with a neuroleptic on board -- "felt" too much like a downturn, and...no, no, no.
sorry to ramble. And...I'm -not- trying to criticize you or your post or your position so much as I am...
trying to think upon and articulate my own position. thanks. :-)
poster:Christ_empowered
thread:1120109
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20220530/msgs/1120112.html