Posted by undopaminergic on August 2, 2021, at 7:14:30
In reply to Re: GABAergic hypofunction in psychosis? » undopaminergic, posted by linkadge on August 1, 2021, at 13:30:26
> >Yes, but when pain is present, painkilling is >rewarding, relatively to baseline, and is one >reason you'd want to use the drug again. I agree >that "addictive" is perhaps not the right term, >but I don't know one that fits better.
>
> Yes, but if you had a painkiller that did not cause reward (in and of itself), then yes one might feel better after taking it (if in pain) but it's not the drug producing the reward. It's simply the desirability of less pain.
>
> For example. If you take an aspirin, and it relieves a headache, you wouldn't bother take a second. However, if you took some morphine for that same headache, you might ask for more 10 minutes later.
>I agree. However, I wonder a) how much the time to onset from taking the drug, and b) prior knowledge of the nature of the drug play a role. If you *thought* aspirin was like morphine, and the speed of onset was the same, would you ask for a second dose? Or would that depend only on whether the pain was gone? Of course, the lack of the secondary psychotropic effects of morphine would probably make a second dose seem less interesting. But morphine, especially the first dose, has adverse effects too, including nausea and drowsiness.
-undopaminergic
poster:undopaminergic
thread:1116100
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20210723/msgs/1116216.html