Posted by ed nieg on March 9, 2019, at 20:35:53
Can someone with a background in psychiatry explain the clinical presentation of this disorder? I took olanzapine for a total of 6 months more than 5 years ago and it gave me anhedonia, which has continued until now. There is no 'mood' component, just an inability to feel pleasure. I've recently begun wondering if I may have tardive akathisia in addition to the permanent emotional effects I suffered from taking these meds. It seems like I can never truly relax or wind down, like it's uncomfortable/unpleasant just to sit.
However, I'm curious if with tardive akathisia there must be a motor component along with the subjective to necessitate a diagnosis. I don't really feel a compulsion to move other than the general discomfort I experience all the time and there's definitely no myoclonus or fidgeting or anything like that. I'm also very confused about the treatment recommendations for this disorder, which state to reintroduce the offending agent (!), I haven't seen research substantiate this and if it's entirely based on clinical experience and empirical observation it's frankly b*llsh*t. I'd rather die before taking another antipsychotic, and I'm sure many people feel the same. Anyways... sorry for that tangent.
poster:ed nieg
thread:1103559
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20190206/msgs/1103559.html