Posted by Christ_empowered on January 25, 2019, at 23:28:53
the new prescriber mentioned lowering the abilify a whole, whole lot, then switching to a low dose of latuda.
for some reason, antidepressants are a big NO! I asked about amoxapine, and even that was a big NO!
so, somehow, ive gone from schizophrenia/schizoaffective prone to depression to in your face Bipolar I...
and I don't think I've had anything remotely resembling "mania" in years.
the other chit chat was about adding another 'mood stabilizer,' which apparently means they'd like to treat my moods as if they were grand mal seizures...
oh man. i made pleasant convo and stood my ground, i now have a prn gabapentin Rx because...I don't know why, honestly...'stay calm!,' I guess.
but, seriously: abilify vs latuda. can anyone fill me in on why, exactly, a low dose of latuda might be better than a low(ish) dose of abilify? i know they're both new drugs, but...what about eps, etc.? the -big- selling point for Abilify, with me personally, is that the EPS was less severe than anything else (tremor), and then when I started doing Orthomolecular...
even that subsided, thank goodness.
ok. thank you all, in advance. :-)
poster:Christ_empowered
thread:1102979
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20181024/msgs/1102979.html