Posted by regisx on July 22, 2016, at 21:21:45
If a person suffers a "nervous breakdown" then what's the official diagnosis?
Does this differ? Or is it always something like acute psychosis? Something which involves too much dopamine and which is then treated with anti-psychotics?
My assumption would be that the "treatment" would be based on pumping the person full of benzos as an immediate treatment and then put her on an anti-psychotic.
poster:regisx
thread:1090750
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20160713/msgs/1090750.html