Posted by J Kelly on May 24, 2016, at 5:15:22
In reply to Re: Dopamine antagonism » J Kelly, posted by SLS on May 23, 2016, at 9:18:35
> Hi, Jade.
>
> > Just so I'm clear, a dopamine antagonist (like Zyprexa) means less dopamine available, correct?
>
> A direct antagonist binds to a receptor and blocks it. It is not a reuptake inhibitor. In general, anything that binds to a receptor is called a ligand. Ligands are divided into categories, based upon their action at the receptor. Agonists stimulate, while antagonists and inverse agonists inhibit.
>
> As weird as this sounds, there is actually more dopamine available when using neuroleptic antipsychotics. This occurs because the drug binds to pre-synaptic receptors along with post-synaptic receptors. (Abilify might be an exception). The antagonism of the pre-synaptic receptors convinces the neuron to manufacture and release more dopamine. Although more dopamine is available, the antipsychotic prevents the post-synaptic neuron from "seeing" it because the receptors are blocked by the antagonist.
>
>
> - Scott
>Hi,
So is it a wash then? Or does Zyprexa = less available/useable dopamine?
Jade
poster:J Kelly
thread:1089116
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20160501/msgs/1089176.html