Posted by SLS on January 21, 2016, at 16:21:36
In reply to Re: why SSRI's don't work for so many?, posted by john locke on January 21, 2016, at 13:21:40
> > By the way, are you a fellow sufferer?
> >
> > If so, may I ask what your illness is and how successful you have been with treatment?
> >
> > I have not been terribly successful. My case is that of bipolar disorder, depressive type with drug-induced mania. I never become manic spontaneously. I become manic only in association with antidepressants. Otherwise, I am depressed every day.
> >
> >
> > - Scott
>
> Would you mind explaining this further, Scott? I don't know much at all about bipolar disorder, so if someone had asked me I would have thought that someone who is depressed every day does not have it and has unipolar depression instead.
> Best,
> JohnI am grateful that the DSM V has worked in some of the principles developed by Hagop Askikal. The biological substrate for bipolar mood illness includes presentations that include people who are depressed all the time and manic all the time. My particular type is one of being depressed every day except for a handful of severe manic episodes triggered by antidepressants. DSM V uses "qualifiers" rather than rigid definitions. So, bipolar disorder can take on presentations that previously had not been categorized. Actually, Emil Kraepelin's original concept of "manic depression" is in some ways better to describe mood illness. It does not imply that any one person necessarily experience both mood extremes. It is not unlike other biological illnesses that can present with different symptoms in different people. So, yes, bipolar disorder includes presentations of pure depression and pure mania. Importantly, the biologies of BD and MDD are clearly different according to studies of genetics and other biomarkers.
- ScottSome see things as they are and ask why.
I dream of things that never were and ask why not.- George Bernard Shaw
poster:SLS
thread:1085422
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20151225/msgs/1085640.html