Posted by jono_in_adelaide on October 19, 2012, at 18:04:08
Some sources suggest that 1mg of clonazepam is = to 1mg of alprazolam, others suggest that it is 0.5mg of clonazepam that is = to 1mg of alprazolam
Any suggestions as to which might be closer to the truth?
I'm thinking of asking my doctor about switching from alprazolam to clonazepam because of its longer half life, so less interdose rebound anxiety etc, and want to get my numbers right.
poster:jono_in_adelaide
thread:1029156
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20121018/msgs/1029156.html