Posted by brynb on August 17, 2012, at 16:39:29
In reply to Re: RJ + Scott Re: lyrica - how does it work » brynb, posted by SLS on August 17, 2012, at 14:23:49
> > I always thought that any kind of mania defaults you to the Bipolar spectrum. Or, if it's med-induced, does that technically not "count" as mania??
>
> In the DSM V, the proposed diagnoses for bipolar disorder will include a subtype for which mania occurs only in association with drug exposure.Thanks, Scott.
In your opinion, do you think I'm in the bipolar category?
My depression started at 14, I was very irritable during my teens, started having severe depressive episodes/breakdowns from age 18 on, and the severity of my episodes have gotten much worse with age. I also had a rough time with substance abuse from my late 20s to mid 30s.I always had some hypomania, be it irritability, anxiety, snapping at people, mood swings, etc., but with Neurontin I get full-blown mania (spending, hypersexuality, rapid speech, crying fits, euphoria).
It's not that I'm so concerned with the label, I just feel like there's some comfort and justification in knowing that my suffering has a name (and isn't a character flaw!). And my diagnosis from pdocs in the past was never distinct--it was usually considered MDD w/ GAD, but several thought I was bipolar 2.
Thanks.
-b
poster:brynb
thread:1023132
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120803/msgs/1023540.html