Posted by schleprock on July 18, 2012, at 19:40:00
I realize that this is a rather amateur question, but I've been getting very concerned that after mostly 20 years of Nortriptyline monotherapy, the drug is finally starting to "poop-out". My current Pdoc seems opposed to this hypothesis. We've just went over the results of my first nortriptyline level blood test in the past couple of years and my levels are currently reading at a high 145. My Pdoc suggests that is is evidence that the drug has not failed.
So my question is: in the case of Nortriptyline, do the measured blood levels correspond to the drugs actual efficacy. I can certainly understand how lower levels would be supportive of a drug not having its intended effect, but could it ever be the case that a drug like Nortriptyline could just simply cease to do anything (having "pooped out") despite having an adequate blood levels. Or is the often reported "poop out" for antidepressents related to having a decreased presence in the bloodstream?
poster:schleprock
thread:1021709
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120718/msgs/1021709.html