Posted by psychobot5000 on May 29, 2012, at 1:41:57
My whimsy and curiousity leads me to ask this question:
Nomifensine and methylphenidate are both norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitors, without a lot of other known action on other binding sites. However, the one is thought of primarily as an antidepressant (and was apparently quite effective for that purpose), while the other is a psychostimulant with positive effects on mood, but not an antidepressant per se. Why? What difference might there be between the two molecules?
To some extent they're similar, i.e. it's usually presumed nomifensine had some positive effect on attention and that sort of thing, as a stimulant would, but on mood they seem to act differently, despite the marked similarity in their pharmacological profiles.
Thoughts?
pb5000
poster:psychobot5000
thread:1018816
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120522/msgs/1018816.html