Posted by mogger on March 12, 2012, at 13:16:53
Can anyone explain why a lower dose of Remeron causes more sedation? I am at 45mg and my pdoc would like me to go to 30mg as he thinks I will sleep better and that 30mg can be just as effective as 45mg for depression. Can that be true as well? Thanks,
mogger
poster:mogger
thread:1012891
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120302/msgs/1012891.html