Posted by Diego11 on March 12, 2012, at 13:05:47
I wonder if there is any PHARMACOLOGICAL STUDY of Nardil which definitely proves that the Nardil stops working after some period of time ?
Or possibly, Is there any relation between when the Nardil stop working and its initial manic effects (with the efficacy of the drug after the manic phase passes )?I am searching for pharmacological proof/evidence which testifying about it, do you know about something what am i thinking ?
Thanks!
poster:Diego11
thread:1012890
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120302/msgs/1012890.html