Posted by SLS on May 12, 2011, at 6:23:54
In reply to TDp Journal Article #2 + #3, posted by floatingbridge on May 12, 2011, at 3:04:15
I had thought of this possibility over ten years ago. Intuitively, it made sense to me, but I could not put the pieces of the puzzle together with facts or statistics. I abandoned the idea, having found no support for it in the literature. I did not think of it as being dysphoria, though, but, rather, a change in the trajectory of the original illness. At this point, I would not refute the idea that there is an induction by antidepressants of a dysphoria separate from the depressive illness.
One thing to take into consideration is that a depressive illness can become more robust over time if left untreated. I think this might be inflating the statistical rate of the appearance of a tardive depressive syndrome resulting from extended antidepressant treatment.
Perhaps there is a way to discourage the hypothesized induction of tardive dysphoria using other pharmacological agents. It will be interesting to see if vilazodone (Viibryd), a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and 5-HT1a receptor agonist, possesses a reduced risk of a dysphoric reaction. If 5-HT1a stimulation does not prevent tardive dysphoria, perhaps to attack it from the other angle using pindolol as a 5-HT1a autoreceptor antagonist might work. I need to think about these two opposing effects on neurotransmission more to be able to predict which of the two angles makes more sense.
Linkadge?
- Scott
Some see things as they are and ask why.
I dream of things that never were and ask why not.
poster:SLS
thread:985133
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20110502/msgs/985135.html