Posted by iforgotmypassword on May 8, 2011, at 6:00:06
I am wondering as it seems to be suggested, at least if some assumptions regarding acamprosate are correct, that decline from chronic alcohol use is due to the excitotoxic rebound. If NMDA antagonism might protect against this, would memantine potentially protect against benzo related decline?
I have never come across anything about what causes the documeneted decline from benzos (similar to alcohol it seems, in cognitive and affective dimensions). I have only come across something claiming diazepam may be less toxic than lorazepam, but I don't think I remember any reasoning given (at least in the abstract).
Lorazepam was the only thing I could use to do things on my own, and helped supress my tension and repetitive movements naturally without putting myself into a constricted "mode" (i.e. i can often relax the tension in my face, by clenching my fists, and making a stiff bee-line where I am going. Conversationally, I also have a "mode" but it isn't as functional as it maybe it seems, talking helps it to abate but because of that I often can't stop talking and not purposefully, it is more analagous to my pacing and akathisia.)
poster:iforgotmypassword
thread:984894
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20110502/msgs/984894.html