Posted by orbital on October 12, 2010, at 15:51:34
After reading med user experiences and comparing them to my own, I'm becoming increasingly convinced that, in broad terms, med dosaging seems to be far too aggressive. I'm thinking SSRIs, mostly.
How are these numbers determined? Mean doses found in initial clinical trials that involve a relatively small number of people, versus the millions of patients who go on to take these meds?
Maybe the TCA's toxicity potential is a blessing of sorts, as it has forced researchers to determine their therapeutic indexes in cold, hard numbers?
My depression usually responds well to SSRIs during the first few weeks of treatment but, pretty soon, thymoanaesthesia sets in. Wouldn't cutting down the dosage solve this, instead of upping it?
Doesn't the SSRI's flat-dose response "curve" imply that say, in theory, 1mg of escitalopram could be just as effective as 20mg, without these disabling side effects?
I'm still trying to find a workaround to reap the benefits of SSRI/SNRI meds, without turning into a zombie.
poster:orbital
thread:965553
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20101009/msgs/965553.html