Posted by bleauberry on August 25, 2009, at 19:24:28
In reply to Re: amantadine helped me in the past ... but psychosis, posted by SLS on August 25, 2009, at 17:51:48
> I think there might be a clue here. Why amantadine "worked" before but not now is interesting.
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> Amantadine is known to be psychotogenic. This is probably a result of the dopaminergic properties of the drug, which are likely to be the result of increased dopamine release from nerve terminals. This is probably why the drug is efficacious in the treatment of Parkinsons Disease, an illness known to be one of progressively impaired dopaminergic function.
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> - ScottHi Scott,
I agree with you. Amantadine's dopamine characteristics have to be considered in light of Jereon's history.I do not believe though that it was ever stated that it doesn't work now. It was never tried again. I think the fear is there that it would induce or worsen psychosis a second time around. It is a valid fear, but not at all conclusively predictable. In a hospital setting where Jereon has been for many months, what better place to find out?
I was looking more at the other multiple mechanisms of Amantadine apart from dopamine. Dopamine is one of its lesser mechanisms. Some of its mechanisms are not even known. The ones that are known include antiviral and antibiotic. My LLMD's most successful cocktail for the Lyme syndrome (Borrellia and its common coinfections) includes a trio of drugs with Amantadine being one of them. Who knows what mechanism is working there? No one. Only that it is working.
A positive response by Jereon to ANYTHING deserves a close look. So far that close look has only gone to the antipsychotic class due to a short response to Seroquel. Amantadine got left in the dust. Why? I don't understand that. One powerful clue. We don't know what it means, only that something is there.
poster:bleauberry
thread:913511
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090818/msgs/914076.html