Posted by linkadge on August 24, 2009, at 10:34:23
When amitriptyline converts to nortiptyline can one expect the same blood level of nortriptyline as with an equivalent dose of nortriptyline?
I.e would 50mg of amitriptyline eventually produce the same blood level of nortriptyline as 50mg of nortriptyline?
If so, wouldn't the theraptutic dose of amitriptyline be lower as you essentually have two AD's in the system?
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:913858
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090818/msgs/913858.html