Posted by sdb on July 20, 2009, at 8:52:39
these are very popular drugs in the hospital and mainly in Europe. Celexa is still used and clearly not replaced by Lexapro.
is it possible that somebody responds to Celexa but absolutely not (no effect) to Lexapro?
did it happen to somebody?I personally believe that the isomer that doesn't block the reuptake could also regulate something at the receptors. We all know that the efficacy does not just depend of how much a substance blocks something.
poster:sdb
thread:907605
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090709/msgs/907605.html