Posted by yxibow on July 16, 2009, at 10:13:51
In reply to Re: Nortriptyline Generic or Brand Favorites?, posted by SLS on July 15, 2009, at 18:16:21
> > The only way I would believe that the relapse was infact the change of drug is if the patient had no idea there was a drug change.
>
> You are entitled.
>
>
> - ScottI actually would agree here...
I didn't "relapse" when I went to generic, and Teva (which is a company that fairly often gets that position) had a 180 day exclusive on it.
A double blind study on any changes in effectiveness should be done on a number of brand -> generic switches.
I'm not one for "propaganda", but the entire FAQ on generics should really be read at the FDA -- sure maybe its their "propaganda", but its at least worth a look.
I know, I'm concerned too about medications that have a very fine line for me -- Seroquel would be one.... as for the other one, Valium, I've been taking one or another generic all along.
Hate to say it, but sometimes a trial on -not- knowing on one of one's more "low liability" prescriptions as to whether it is generic could prove or disprove the belief that generics are solely the contributor to one's problem, and not merely correlation and causation issues.
As for the TCA in mention.... practically all TCAs out there dosed would be generic by this point so I fail to see how it makes a difference ?
I've never received "brand" Anafranil. I have received two generic brands of clomipramine in the past.......I usually try to get medications a few days earlier anyhow, which usually runs through insurance about at the 25th day or so, so if I get a different one I just mix and match until its blended off to the next one.
But each to their own.-- Jay
poster:yxibow
thread:906750
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090709/msgs/907042.html