Posted by TriedEveryDrug on April 1, 2009, at 8:46:08
Hypothetically speaking, if a person takes antidepressants for a while, and then stops, will they end up more depressed than before they ever took the ADs?
Let's say on a scale of 1-10 where 10 is the most depressed, they start out a 5. Then they take ADs for a year and then taper off. Are they doomed to be higher on that scale?
Thanks.
poster:TriedEveryDrug
thread:888030
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090330/msgs/888030.html