Posted by JadeKelly on December 17, 2008, at 15:42:12
In reply to what's the purpose of hypo-/ mania?, posted by llurpsienoodle on December 17, 2008, at 7:46:12
> There's an awful lot of talk about how depression and such relates to early psychological (autobiographical)history. But I wonder why mania (or hypomania) is typically thought of as an abnormal *brain* function. What is the psychological purpose of the other pole of the bipolar spectrum. What function does it serve?
>
> Anyone got any ideas? maybe some interesting citations or such. I know about Melanie Klein's "the manic defense" but aside from this 65 year old psychoanalytic theory, I'd be interested in hearing more contemporary thoughts.
>
> -LlHi L,
A psychiatrist once described to me a manic episode as "an emotional siezure", which is exactly what it looks like to me. Interestingly, there is correlation between epilepsy and bipolar I. A neurologist described to me an epileptic siezure as a kind of mis-fire in the brain. From my experience they both have some genetic &/or biological abnormality that makes a person susceptible. As Scott said, the trigger is irrelevant to that suseptability, however, triggers can be supressed/controlled in many cases, completely. I have also seen changes as shown on Scott's spectrum. However, I believe they can take place for any number of reasons. For example, a grown man, who was a very successful, practical, "type A" person, may subsequently grow emotionally or change simply as a result of the experience.
As for triggers, an Epileptic person may experience his/her first manic episode following a grand mal siezure. Here, the trigger is of significant importance in many areas.
As for the other "pole" in Bi-polar, what I've seen is normal/manic/depression. My theory is that the manic episode IS traumatic for the bi-polar person, whether that be biological or situational, I think it could be both, however, again, I believe suseptability mixed in is almost a guarantee of a subsequent depression.
One last thing, again in my experience, there is no to little control when a person will have a manic episode unless controlled by medication. The only control I'm aware of is if a person wants to be manic because the experience is euphoric, its possible I would assume to induce it. I think the amount of control a person has during the manic state varies, but full control is never there, IMHO.
~Jade
poster:JadeKelly
thread:869216
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20081214/msgs/869290.html