Posted by bleauberry on November 28, 2008, at 10:18:28
In reply to Re: zoloft vs lexapro--difference in potency? » bleauberry, posted by mav27 on November 26, 2008, at 19:32:15
I do understand these meds have different potencies when compared on a pound-per-pound kind of basis. But when comparing normal dose to normal dose, they are basically equal. In the end, it actually makes no difference. Someone could, and they have, for example do poorly on Zoloft at its proper inhibition level, and yet do great on Prozac with only half of its proper inhibition level, and not feel better until reaching twice the plasma level of Paxil. All this number crunching is meaningless in the real world.
But I understand the original post was asking which was more potent, and the graphs do show that in a detailed way.
> In the same graph you can see how it takes different plasma levels to reach that 80%. zoloft only takes 25 ng/ml for 80% uptake inhibition whereas paxil takes 40 ng/ml to reach 80% uptake inhibition which is what makes the zoloft much more potent.
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> Prozac being one of the weaker ones takes 200 ng/ml to cause 80% reuptake inhibition.
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> > According to graph 3.7, 50mg Zoloft, 20mg Prozac, or 20mg Paxil have equal potency, each inhibiting the serotonin reuptake pump by 80%.
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poster:bleauberry
thread:865220
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20081123/msgs/865574.html