Posted by iforgotmypassword on December 28, 2007, at 12:28:56
Memantine produces modest reductions in heroin-induced subjective responses in human research volunteers.
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i don't understand. i figured memantine would increase subjective effects of opiates.
or does it just fight tolerance? does it even do that?
does NMDA antagonism, as with memantine, improve normal opioid function in the brain? i mean, in the sense of keeping things ideally level and not prone to peaks-pitfalls or extremes?
keeping glutamatergic activity under control makes things more constant and more conducive to real life functioning?
poster:iforgotmypassword
thread:803029
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20071225/msgs/803029.html