Posted by pstrait on November 27, 2007, at 1:49:54
In reply to Bipolar II vs Depression/ADD diagnosis, posted by amyaub on November 26, 2007, at 21:49:01
For what it is worth, I have been diagnosed with bipolar II and ADD. I know that they are often comorbid.
Incidentally, this isn't as exact a science as we would like it to be. While each diagnosis has specific definitions in the dsm-iv (you can read the definitions and decide if you have ever had a definitional hypo-manic period), it is not like each diagnosis can be traced back to something objectively distinct, like antibodies for a specific virus or something. All of these disorders involve highly interrelated subsystems and chemicals within the CNS. They all present somewhat differently in different people, and they have both genetic and environmental causes.
The key question is really not whether the diagnosis is perfect (although this helps a lot), but if the treatment resolves the problems. In this case, it seems like the key question is whether or not a mood stabilizer is needed. IMO, if you figure that out, it is irrelevant what the diagnosis says.
poster:pstrait
thread:797209
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20071125/msgs/797248.html