Posted by Astounder on November 1, 2007, at 22:35:55
In reply to Numanda for Adderall/Dex tolerance?, posted by Mrsmith on October 31, 2007, at 10:24:06
> Long-term use of stimulants has become counterproductive - creating the very problems it was originally prescribed for (somnolence, depersonalization, ADD). Heard that NMDA antagonists - and in particular, the relatively new alzheimer's med Numanda - can reduce/eliminate tolerance and restore effectiveness of dexedrine and/or adderall. Any thoughts out there in babble-land? Comments regarding theory or practice would be most welcome!
The studies I've read indicate that uncompetitive NMDA antagonists like memantine (Namenda) prevent plastic changes induced by psychostimulants and opiates. However, they do not reverse the effects of chronic use that are already there. To reverse the tolerance you've already built, theoretically you could stop using the stimulants until you return to baseline (that is, until you stop experiencing withdrawal effects). Or if you can handle it, you can initiate fast withdrawal by taking a high-potency antipsychotic.
You try to increase Namenda's effects by combining it with other negative modulators of the NMDA ion channel: Acamprosate binds to the polyamine site and alcohol binds to the NRB2 subunit where both act as functional antagonists. Amantadine is an uncompetitive antagonist like memantine, but it's much cheaper and has been definitively shown to upregulate postsynaptic D2 dopamine receptors with chronic use. Riluzole and probably Lamictal both inhibit the release of glutamate, which is the main agonist of the NMDA receptors. Finally, you can also try to take nightly doses of highly sedating low-potency neuroleptics like Seroquel to resensitize your D2 receptors while you sleep.
I have taken amphetamines and do currently take 10 mg/d Namenda, but I haven't taken them together. I experience chronic depersonalization as well, and I've found that memantine greatly potentiates the dissociative effects of alcohol, and in high doses is dissociative itself. This makes sense, since its drug target is the same as that of the dissociative anesthetics.
poster:Astounder
thread:792510
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20071027/msgs/792862.html