Posted by deniseuk190466 on March 27, 2007, at 15:19:59
I had a response to 40mg of Seroxat after two years of trying everything.
Not long before that I had been taking Lamictal (although I'm not bipolar) for about three months on it's own which didn't seem to do anything much.
I don't understand why the Seroxat worked when it did, was it just fluke or could the Lamictal have caused any uknown benefits which made the Seroxat work, even though I'd come off Lamictal for about two months prior to taking the Seroxat?
I don't know, I really don't, it's all such a crap shoot, and I get so sick of it, I wish I would just die peacefully in my sleep sometimes.
Denise
poster:deniseuk190466
thread:744710
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070327/msgs/744710.html