Posted by tessellated on January 20, 2007, at 14:49:54
In reply to Re: Ketamine for depression.......any experiences?????, posted by djmmm on January 20, 2007, at 11:01:29
i'm curious as to how one would differentiate the "psychological" from the "physiological" anti-depressant effect. the studies discuss the physiolgical NMDA antagonism in a rather novel fashion that seem to be pointing to a sub-psychedelic effect.
so how does one differentiate the altered ego awareness from the neurochemical alterations?
poster:tessellated
thread:723408
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070119/msgs/724511.html