Posted by notfred on January 15, 2007, at 22:44:57
In reply to Re: VYVANSE™ ??, posted by med_empowered on January 15, 2007, at 20:32:22
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> So..does it have to be in schedule II just b/c its an amphetamine? Wasn't there an effort a couple years ago to re-schedule Ritalin to schedule III?Well Rit is not an amphetamine. Schedules 1-4
define the amount of medically sound use vs abuse potential, with 1 having no legit use and highest level of abuse potential. you can look up the exact wording that defines each schedule. it has been decided that amphetamines are all schedule II, due to their abuse potential and legit medical use. so far every known amphetamine is schedule II. The Analogue Drug Act would extend to all apmhetamines like those scheduled.I think Ritalin should remain II, under the current system.
poster:notfred
thread:722218
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070113/msgs/722749.html