Posted by SLS on December 9, 2006, at 13:58:23
In reply to Re: provigil monotherapy? » psychobot5000, posted by Meri-Tuuli on December 9, 2006, at 13:29:04
> > but they aren't generally viewed as treating the underlying problem--only the symptoms.
>
> Aren't all ADs in this category through? I suppose it depends on how you view the cause of depression, is it 'just' faulty biochemistry or is it your thinking patterns etc.Depression is a word. At the moment, the term is used to describe a clinical presentation of symptoms rather than a specific disease process.
When it comes to unipolar depression, I think there is a spectrum running from the predominantly biological to the predominantly psychological, depending on the individual. The two often interact.
When it comes to bipolar depression, I think the disorder is predominantly biological. Witnessing someone presenting with ultra-rapid cyclicity makes it difficult to avoid this conclusion.
When it comes to my depression, which is bipolar, I know it is 100% biological.
When it comes to unipolar depression, I think the more rigidly one adheres to the DSM definition of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), the more likely one is to identify predominantly biological depressions. I believe that it is these people with MDD that are most likely to respond to antidepressants.
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:711873
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20061206/msgs/711897.html