Posted by Racer on October 12, 2006, at 18:35:05
First the OCD question: my husband's GP has "diagnosed" him with OCD, and put him on antidepressants -- for depression, but also for the OCD. (I'm not entirely sure about the dx -- sometimes I think Asperger's fits better, but he's definitely OCD*ish*) Lexapro and Effexor, so far, and they haven't helped, but did cause constipation and the Lex interfered with sleep, the Effexor caused flatulence. Now the doctor is trying Wellbutrin. I'm happy enough about that, for a number of reasons -- it's a fair drug, and has been my true good and faithful friend -- but I wonder at the reasoning behind trying that for OCD? I'm betting it's a case of "SSRI didn't work, SNRI didn't work, try Wellbutrin," which is fine -- but has anyone ever heard of it as useful for OCD? (Just idle curiosity, really...)
The stims/ADHD question is more complex:
A woman in group said something about "well of course valium isn't helping you if you have ADHD -- it makes things work backwards, so if you take a sedative, it will make you wired. You have to take a stimulant to relax." I know that's wrong. I can come up with a million ways to try to explain why it's wrong, and how it's wrong, but they all share something in common: they take way too long to explain, and they probably aren't all that clear to anyone except me. (I think that's a problem for me anyway...) Also, while I know it's wrong, I am not entirely sure I know why it's wrong. (Which further interferes with my explanations ;-D )
Can anyone explain this to me, so that I can explain it better if it comes up again?
Thanks!
poster:Racer
thread:694246
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20061011/msgs/694246.html