Posted by Estella on September 2, 2006, at 12:44:34
In reply to Re: Biopsychosocial vs Biological Reductionism » finelinebob, posted by Estella on September 2, 2006, at 12:39:38
Lets say that A's brain is more normal than similar to the average of disorder x.
Lets say that the average of disorder x have 'heightened activity in region y'.
Lets say that people say 'people with disorder x have heightened activity in region y'.
Lets say that people say 'individual A has disorder x because they have heightened activity in region y'.
Lets say that individual A is given drug B because drug B reduces activity in region y.
Er... How do we know that drug B reduces activity in region y?? Does it do this for each individual in a group or on the basis of averages once more?
Even if individual A does have heightened activity in region Y what does that do for A?
There might be another individual Z that has heightened activity in region Y yet this person is a model of psychological health.
What would reducing activity in region Y do for Z?
Doesn't anybody else worry about this?
Am I missing something?
(Lol more to the point... What am I missing?)
poster:Estella
thread:680731
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060901/msgs/682299.html