Posted by linkadge on July 11, 2006, at 16:44:47
In reply to a very long but worthwhile STAR*D article, posted by River1924 on July 11, 2006, at 0:08:47
"One of the criteria for BSD would include brief recurrent episodes (more than five), early onset, and non-response to three antidepressants."
I think that is complete nonsense. The doctors are still working under the false impression that they they have all the necessary tools, and that the tools work fine.
If a unipolar person doens't respond to an antidepressant why wouldn't one simply think "well perhaps our antidepressants aren't that good", or "we havn't hit the right target". All of a suddden however, just because a patient doesn't respond to an antidepressant, he must be bipolar.
If a cancer patient doesn't respond to cancer treatment, does that all of a sudden mean that he never really had cancer ?
Early onset? Is it not possable to have a depressive personality/disposition from an early age? Why on earth does that indicate bipolar?
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:663938
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060709/msgs/666120.html