Posted by yxibow on June 3, 2006, at 12:10:43
In reply to Can someone explain this?, posted by Sobriquet Style on June 3, 2006, at 8:44:55
The first interaction is probably on the trivial level -- the second is modest. Almost all psychiatric drugs are metabolized through the liver, where a cytochrome system known as P450 governs how a drug in your body will affect other drugs.
In the second example, modafinil is an inhibitor at 2C9/2C19, meaning that it increases the time another drug that is also metabolized by 2C9/2C19 will stay in your body. In other words, it is conceivable a modest increase in your blood level of Valium will possibly occur and Valium should be down adjusted -- but modest usually means that rarely it is critical.
In the first example, which is most likely trivial, modafinil is an inducer, meaning that it will reduce the availability of a drug at 3A4 (eliminate it quicker), but that there is a great difference between patients. Thus, really no adjustment of the other drug is particularly necessary.
poster:yxibow
thread:652288
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060530/msgs/652349.html