Posted by Iansf on June 3, 2006, at 1:01:50
In reply to Re: rasagiline superior to selegiline? » Jakeman, posted by Larry Hoover on June 1, 2006, at 5:24:24
Someone earlier challenged the idea that sublingual delivery bypassed the digestive system. He or she claimed it is not equivalent to transdermal delivery but rather the same as oral. Is that incorrect? I don't have enough information to know one way or the other, but I'm eager to find out. I cannot afford Emsam, but I could afford liquid selegiline. So if six drops (= to 6 mg) under the tongue works the same as a 6mg patch, I would be extremely happy.
> It would be reasonable to assume that less of the noxious byproducts are formed, when transdermal is compared to oral. Sublingual *is* transdermal. Some of the thinnest dermis in your entire body is in your mouth and your nasal cavities. People snort drugs to take advantage of that. I wouldn't snort selegeline, but......
>
> How a person feels that reduction in byproduct production, is not within the bounds of my projective skill.
>
> Lar
poster:Iansf
thread:649879
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060530/msgs/652191.html