Posted by blueberry on May 1, 2006, at 7:46:21
If you had a medication that inhibited the reuptake of serotonin, dopamine, glutamate, norepinephrine, and gaba all with equal affinity, and if glutamate levels were already very high to begin with while other levels were low...do you think the the glutamate would stay proportionately higher than the other neuros with this reuptake inhibitor, or would they balance out more equallly?...or would it cause some kind of down regulation or up regulation of the glutamate with the net effect of reducing it in comparison to the other neuros? Ideas?
My glutamate is already sky high compared to the other neuros. This particular reuptake inhibitor has worked well for me in the past, but that was before I had such significant fear-terror-paranoia stuff going on. Not sure, but I believe the sky high glutamate is at fault, and so getting started with such a well-rounded equal affinicty reuptake inhibitor is causing me hesitation.
poster:blueberry
thread:638702
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060429/msgs/638702.html