Posted by Dr. Bob on December 3, 2005, at 14:40:44
In reply to Re: ...or overgeneralizing? » badhaircut, posted by Larry Hoover on December 1, 2005, at 13:08:02
> I think it's also a fallacy of propositional logic, of the form "if p and q, q therefore p".
Sorry to interrupt, but I'd like to redirect follow-ups regarding propositional logic to Psycho-Babble Social. Here's a link:
http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/social/20051203/msgs/585017.html
Thanks,
Bob
poster:Dr. Bob
thread:583928
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20051203/msgs/585048.html