Posted by cecilia on November 26, 2005, at 3:59:52
In reply to Re: Is it common for bipolar to remain undiagnosed? » rabble_rouser, posted by CareBear04 on November 22, 2005, at 9:25:33
As we all know, psychiatric theories come and go and one of the latest seems to be that depression that doesn't respond to AD's must really be bipolar. My question-how many mood stabilizers (and which ones are best) for proving or disapproving this theory? I haven't tried nearly as many mood stabilizers as I have AD's, just gabapentin and lamictal (and a brief trial of lithium, but I didn't like throwing up every morning-if I'm going to have morning sickness I should at least get a baby out of it). Oh, and clonazepam, which I guess is a mood stabilizer in large does, though not in the small dose I take (1.5 mg/day). Is there really any point in trying tons of different mood stabilizers just in case you might be bipolar? I'll have to see if the book Katia mentioned is available from the library. The Amazon review of it was pretty negative, though, and it sounded like it was mainly concerned with alcoholism, which isn't an issue for me. Cecilia
poster:cecilia
thread:9730
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20051119/msgs/582313.html