Posted by coll81 on July 15, 2005, at 11:42:39
hey, i was thinking of going on zoloft because the celexa doesnt seem to be working for me anymore. the thing is, is that ive only been on 20mg for about two months. and in the beginning it did work, then i got depressed again and not wanting to do anything. so recently i accidentally took 40mg and felt like my mood was normal again.. but i feel like even if 40 does work, is it true that it will poop out in two months just like the 20mg pooped out so quick? is that how it usually is? in that case id rather switch antidepressants because why should i go through the withdrawels of being on 40 when i can just decrease it now.. what do you guys think? in crease or decrease?
poster:coll81
thread:528017
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050713/msgs/528017.html