Posted by smith562 on July 6, 2005, at 18:15:56
Hey Everyone,
Just wanted to know what people think about notion that all psych meds are simply just uppers or downer. Some people argue that we haven't progress at all over the past 150 years back when patients use cocaine, opium and alcohol. I have tried many meds and possible agree that todays meds are no different that the past ....
cocaine "upper"=amphetamines, tricyclics, wellbutrin, to some extent SSRIs
Opium and alcohol "downer"=depakote, lithium, benzos, antipsychotics
Is there a difference?
Thanks,
Smith
poster:smith562
thread:524363
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050702/msgs/524363.html