Posted by yxibow on March 30, 2005, at 23:15:03
In reply to Re: A particularly bad generic diazepam............. » krybrahaha78, posted by ed_uk on March 30, 2005, at 18:33:28
> Hiya!
>
> Phillipa was wondering how generic mirtazapine compares with 'name brand' Remeron. As is the case with diazepam, there may be some differences RE their absorption.
>
> Regards,
> Ed.I didn't notice any particular difference when generic mirtazapine came out. In the US, any medicine generic or not has to be bioequivalent to the order of 80-130%, which is clinically irrelevant for a lot of drugs, but may be relevant for a small subclass of medications. The same "potency" argument can be also applied after all to the original, there's no complete guarantee that name brand is 100% of what it states. (I'm not shilling for any drug companies :) But the absorption argument is probably part of this bioequivalency, generics may use different stearates or other binding elements for their compound.
poster:yxibow
thread:477325
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050330/msgs/477957.html