Posted by jessers11581 on March 14, 2005, at 14:02:16
Hi again! You know, I forgot to mention in any of my other posts that I recently stopped taking Celexa for about a month and used Luvox in its place (my therapist thought this might be more effective for OCD). I started at 100 mg. and went all the way up to 300 mg., and didn't notice any positive changes. In fact, my insomnia got worse. SO I decided (on my own judgment), to switch back to Celexa again. This is how I did it: about 9 days ago--went down to 200 mg. Luvox, next day--150 mg., next day--made the switch to 40 mg. Celexa and have continued at that dose from there. It just seems strange to me that my mental state has gotten so much worse since doing this, and I'm wondering if perhaps my body is still trying to adjust to the overlap or something. Is this likely? I would have assumed that by this point, the Celexa would be providing enough serotonin and there wouldn't be a problem. However, I do understand that SSRI's can eventually "poop-out" and I'm wondering if this could also be the case with myself. After my last Celexa increase to 40 mg., I felt amazing for about 6 months, and then gradually began to descend once more. Does this mean that the drug is not providing the same amount of serotonin to my brain that it once did, and that I have "pooped out"? I have no problem with increasing my current dose, but it seems like I read somewhere that Celexa was no more effective at 60 mg. than at 40. And I certainly don't want to deal with any more of the side effects (particularly apathy, lowered libido, and spaciness). Damn. It's very frustrating to have psychological problems, isn't it? :)
poster:jessers11581
thread:470904
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050312/msgs/470904.html