Posted by rainbowbrite on March 5, 2005, at 23:44:20
In reply to a few drug questions...anyone??, posted by rainbowbrite on March 5, 2005, at 23:09:06
If a person responds well to an SSRI and does not to a drug that affects dopamine or norepinephrine and vice versa, well....does that mean that there are actually 2 types or even 3 types of depression? I don't mean for it to sound so simplified but I can't help it lol
poster:rainbowbrite
thread:467193
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050304/msgs/467197.html