Posted by ed_uk on December 10, 2004, at 12:50:10
Hi!
A note on bipolar II ....
It's odd how so many people are being diagnosed with bipolar II these days. I get the impression that in some cases the diagnosis is being made solely due to the presence of irritability, anger and agitation. According to the lax criteria some pdocs must be using even I would have been diagnosed with bipolar disorder! I guess they're not using the DSM...
I think some pdocs are getting so carried away with diagnosing bipolar II disorder that they are greatly reducing the meaningful nature of the term 'bipolar disorder'.
What do you think?
Ed.
poster:ed_uk
thread:427264
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20041206/msgs/427264.html