Posted by EERRIICC on June 7, 2004, at 23:24:05
If a drug works for you and then "poops-out", and you take that drug again, after an adequate break, and it does not work, it must follow that the drug has somehow permanently altered your brain.
Any opinions or ideas?
poster:EERRIICC
thread:354702
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040602/msgs/354702.html