Posted by GIANA on April 7, 2004, at 17:00:50
I once asked my Therapist if it were possible for a person to have Negative Schizophrenia without ever having Positive Symptoms, he replied by saying usually there are some postive symptoms resent too. The reason I ask is because I have been diagnosed with depression, but have all the negative symptoms (except flat emotions) but never had any postive symptoms. Is it possible?
poster:GIANA
thread:333792
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040407/msgs/333792.html