Posted by Bill LL on April 5, 2004, at 14:24:43
In reply to Re: Celexa to Lexapro over night??! » Bill LL, posted by AntiTrust on April 5, 2004, at 11:08:58
It's hard to say exactly what the conversion rate is. But a general rule of thumb seems to be around 3 to 1. Therefore, 60 mg Celexa would be roughly 20 mg Lexapro.
I can see why you had in mind a 2 to 1 conversion. That active ingredient in Celexa is thought to be s-citalopram which makes up 50% of Celexa. Lexapro is 100% s-citalopram. But in practice, the conversion seems to be more like 3 to 1. People think that this may be due to competition between the s and the r isomers on nerve receptors.
> That is what I was accually questioning>>the doses from celexa 60mg down to lexapro 10mg.
> From my little understanding of lexapro it equal 1/2 the strengh of celexa.
> 10mg lexapro=20mg celexa
> 20mg lexapro=40mg celexa
> 30mg lexapro=60mg celexa
> and so on.....
> It just didnt make sense when I was told about the aburpt switch and then the dose difference!!!!
poster:Bill LL
thread:332598
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040402/msgs/332934.html