Posted by john1022 on December 9, 2003, at 13:44:07
In reply to Re: ZOLOFT or LUVOX success after other SSRI failures?, posted by SLS on December 9, 2003, at 8:11:13
Thanks for the suggestion of Zyprexa, Scott?
I was wondering if you or anyone else knew the answer to this question:
I know some bipolars have manic reactions when given ad's without a mood stabilizer. But aren't these manic reactions characterized more by up moods, more talkative, creativeness, etc?
What I seem to be having is a depressive reaction of feeling much worse, very down, more anxiety. Or can this be considered a manic reaction as well? I am just wondering if I will ever be able to take a SSRI or SNRI again even with a mood stabilizer because of this certain bad reaction I had?
Thanks a lot for your opinion and time on this question
poster:john1022
thread:287696
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20031208/msgs/288036.html